Talking About the Past in the Present Tense
Part of series Cognitive linguistics and translation
I am sure this and similar patterns have been examined and compared to biblical analogues, and of course the wayyiqtol form has been discussed at many times and in many places. Still, I think this very understandable yet scientific explanation of one use of the historical present has yet to be done (that I know of) for biblical Hebrew verbal aspect, and for the wayyiqtol form in particular.
Perhaps this is due to the fact that the Hebrew text has so many (diachronic) versions of ancient Hebrew mixed up together, or for some other reason. And perhaps someone can point out an explanation with more explanatory power than the the wayyiqtol form is the "narrative past" (as opposed to some other past(s)?).
Or maybe it is simply (at least at times) biblical Hebrew's historical present. Thoughts are welcome.
Sorry that his audio has no accompanying video that I could see-it is an older podcast.


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Very nice podcast, by the way. I would think the case in Hebrew is different. My impression was that the best explanation for Hebrew tenses is that they express relative time rather than absolute, so that the wayyiqtol is not tense-switching but expresses synchronicity. This, then would not be a historical present, would it? This article seemed to be appropos: Posted earlier by Marlon Winedt